Grammar point, please help clarify this

Question

Hi, I need help with this grammar point.

I was preparing myself for an English Grammar test, the material I'm studying to prepare for the test says that there are 7 words, namely 3 articles (a, an, the) and 4 possessive pronouns (my, our, your, their), are always "adjectives". What?! Could someone be kind enough to explain the logic or reason for that? I just simply can't wrap my head around that concept. Thanks.

Raen

Goodman · Accepted Answer

Oh! This is the first time I heard of this

I am afraid I am clueless....

Anonymous · Answer

In the simplest sense, an adjective describes a noun

a Raen
the Raen
our Raen
your Raen
their Raen

etc.

None of the articles and pronouns in your statement can be used alone; they can be used only with a noun -- the purpose of which is to to modify a noun.

However, more than one adjective may be used to modify a noun:

a beautiful Raen
the beautiful Raen
our beautiful Raen
your beautiful Raen
their beautiful Raen

etc.

By the way, the first sentence in your question is grammatically incorrect.....

Anonymous · Answer

Sorry to see that you are clueless....

The articles and pronouns about which the person was asking

may only be used with a noun

they may not be used alone

by definition, an adjective modifies a noun

in other words,

your

may not be used by itself

a

may not be used by itself

neither makes sense all alone

therefore, those 7 articles and pronouns are adjectives

Raen · Answer

Thanks Anonymous for your detailed explanation.

So would you say this particular grammar point is widely accepted by native-speakers and/or linguistic community? DailyGrammar online is the source, I'd like to know if the teaching of this website is recognized as the authouraty of English grammar. I have come across other points that made me cringe as they were so foreign to what I was taught in my own country (then again, I'm a foreigner to English speakers, so who am I to say.)

By the way, I double-checked the grammar of my subject title. Could you be kind enough to tell me how it was wrong?

Thanks

Raen

Huevos · Answer

RaenSo would you say this particular grammar point is widely accepted by native-speakers and/or linguistic community?

Whether or not people choose to accept it is irrelevant, it's a fact. Have a look at this:

smooth coat
chihuahua
domesticated
dog
canis
caninae
canidae
carnivora
mammal
chordata
animal

Now when you see a chihuahua ask the owner if it is a "chordata". Most would say no, it's a "chihuahua", but of course it is a "chordata", it's just that someone who doesn't understand the heirarchy or is not familiar with greater terminology wouldn't even know what a chordata was.
Words follow a similar heirarchy with lexical classes within lexical classes, within lexical classes. In the case of your question "adjectives" are a super class that contains, among others, determiners. Then in the determiner class we have, among others, articles, possessive derterminers (possessive adjectives and possessive pronouns), etc. And so on and so forth.

BarbaraPA · Answer

As for your other question: The first line is a comma splice. If you have a complete sentence, you cannot hook it on to the next sentence using a comma.

Cool Breeze · Answer

Terminology simply varies from country to country. In many European countries terms like "possessive adjective" are not used. I had never heard it until I hit these forums! On the other hand, I think I'm the only one here who talks about "clause equivalents".

I hope you pass the test.
CB

Raen · Answer

Thanks Huevos for you enlightment. But could we, just for the sake of arguement, allow me to examine the merit of this grammar point:

It says: There are 7 words that are "always" adjectives: articles "a", "an" and "the" and possessive pronouns "my", "your", "our" and "their".

1. As far as I know, all 3 articles are "always" followed by a noun and/or adjective+noun. Why are they labeled as "adjectives" when coming before a noun or adjective+noun? Why not just call them adjectives to begin with? and why can't they stand as their original identity which is "articles". An example in the practice that asks us to identify the part of speech for each word:

Q: Both the big girl and a small boy were happy with the results.

A: Both - conjunction, the - adjective, big - adjective, girl - noun, and - conjunction, a - adjective, small - adjective, boy - noun, were - verb, happy - adjective, with - preposition, the - adjective, results - noun.

Both "the" were identified as adjective. Why can't they just be "article"? What is the big idea for them to be labeled as "adjective"?

2. "my, your, our, their" are always adjective. A layman would say why not the other possessive pronouns: "her, his, her, its...". What's so special abut the first 4?

Anyway, I know it's not good to over think. But this is just one of the grammar points I find hard to comprehend. Thanks to everyone for their imput, and thanks for the good-will wish on my test, I sure hope I'll pass.

Regards

Raen

Huevos · Answer

Raen1. As far as I know, all 3 articles are "always" followed by a noun and/or adjective+noun. Why are they labeled as "adjectives" when coming before a noun or adjective+noun? Why not just call them adjectives to begin with? and why can't they stand as their original identity which is "articles".

Here's what Wikipedia says: An article is a word that combines with a noun to indicate the type of reference being made by the noun. The three main articles in the English language are the, an and a. It is sometimes wondered which part of speech articles belong to. Despite much speculation, articles are adjectives, as they do describe nouns; Linguists place them in a different category, that of determiners.

Raen2. "my, your, our, their" are always adjective. A layman would say why not the other possessive pronouns: "her, his, her, its...". What's so special abut the first 4?

Wikipedia says no on this: Depending on the theory the grammar subscribes to, English "possessive adjectives" are determiners or pronouns: possessive determiners,[1] possessive pronouns,[2] dependent genitive pronouns,[3] weak possessive pronouns,[4] and so forth. They are not adjectives, because they can be substituted for and cannot co-occur with another determiner such as an article or a demonstrative.
So the answer to your question: "So would you say this particular grammar point is widely accepted by native-speakers and/or linguistic community?", is no.

CalifJim · Answer

RaenWhat's so special abut the first 4?

The real question is "What's different about the others (e.g., his, her, ...)?"
The others can be used without a noun as well, in one way or another:
It is her purse. vs. Did you tell her?
But not the four mentioned:
It is my car. vs. *Did you tell my?
___
It turns out that someone has gone through the trouble of testing them all and determining which ones cannot be used without a noun. This curious factoid results. I don't think it's worth remembering, really. It's about as important as saying that the only name for a day of the week that has more than eight letters is "Wednesday". I think the author is just "showing off" his ability to make a "discovery". I would not dignify it with the name "grammar point"!

CJ

Grammar point, please help clarify this

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