Yes. ) take the bare infinitive after them.
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AnonymousIs it should + bare infinitive of the verb”?`Yes, because should is a modal auxiliary and all modal auxiliaries always require an infinitive.
EnglishmavenThe grammar rule is that modal auxiliary verbs are followed by the "base" form. The base form is derived by omitting the "to" from the infinitive.The one exception is "ought" which for many speakers takes a to-infinitival complement.
fivejedjonI consider 'ought' to be a marginal modal. The verbs Englishmaven listed are the core modals.Why do you think "ought" is only a marginal modal?
fivejedjonWell, the fact that it is usually followed by a to- infinitive distinguishes it from the core modals. Also, its negative and interrogative forms are constructed with auxiliary DO by some native speakers. This may not be acceptable in standard English, but it once again marks the verb as different from the core modals.I don't think the fact that it (
BillJa comprehensive reply such as the one provided by Englishmaven, should make mention of it, especially as leading dictionaries give it as a modal. I think learners should be aware of that.Apparently, a mention of 'ought' is necessary to make the reply comprehensive, but a mention of 'need' or 'dare' is not necessary, to say nothing of 'is to', 'be able to