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Joseph A Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

grammar

Hello everyone
Are these sentences correct?
1. I have been used to living in this city.
2. I have got used to living in this city.
3. I got used to living in this city.
4. I will be used to living in this city.
5. I will get used to living in this city.
If they are correct, is there any difference between them?
Kind regards
  

Top answer

They're all grammatical, and they're all possible. Context is important as usual. , I have been used to living in this city since my family moved here when I was a child.

— Teechr

  • They're all grammatical, and they're all possible.
  • Context is important as usual.
  • , I have been used to living in this city since my family moved here when I was a child.
  • I have got used to living in this city and I don't miss my hometown any longer.
  • I got used to living in this city, so I found it difficult to leave five years ago.
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4 Answers
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They're all grammatical, and they're all possible. Context is important as usual.
e.g.,
I have been used to living in this city since my family moved here when I was a child.
I have got used to living in this city and I don't miss my hometown any longer.
I got used to living in this city, so I found it difficult to leave five years ago. [I'm in the city again o
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Thank you so much for your answer.
sorry, anther quetion
What about these two sentences:
1. I am used to living in this city.
2. I get used to living in this city.
Do they have the same meaning? or is the second sentence correct?
Kind regards
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Those two are also grammatical, and they possible in the context too. They don't have the same meaning.

e.g.,
I am used to living in this city; I like it very much.

e.g.
Finally, I get used to living in this city, and all of a sudden my boss says I have to move.
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Thank you teechr for your answer
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