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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Grammar
I know that the sentence 1. "No one besides me could play this." is correct but what about this sentence 2. "No one could play this, besides me." Please give your comment and if 2 is wrong how what is correct from other than 1st one(If something wrong with punctuation, please correct that as well. ) and if it is correct does it mean something different than 1st one.
Top answer
Both are fine. In the second I would omit the comma. The difference is that the second can (but doesn't necessarily) emphasise "no one could play this" whilst the first emphasises (definitely) the "besides me" (thus the first focusses on the ego and the second can focus on the difficulty of the task) d
- Both are fine.
- In the second I would omit the comma.
- The difference is that the second can (but doesn't necessarily) emphasise "no one could play this" whilst the first emphasises (definitely) the "besides me" (thus the first focusses on the ego and the second can focus on the difficulty of the task) d
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1 Answers
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Both are fine.
In the second I would omit the comma.
The difference is that the second can (but doesn't necessarily) emphasise "no one could play this" whilst the first emphasises (definitely) the "besides me" (thus the first focusses on the ego and the second can focus on the difficulty of the task)
d
In the second I would omit the comma.
The difference is that the second can (but doesn't necessarily) emphasise "no one could play this" whilst the first emphasises (definitely) the "besides me" (thus the first focusses on the ego and the second can focus on the difficulty of the task)
d
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