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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

grammar

The share of the First Party in the company has become 36% after the transfer of 15% of his shares to the Third Party.
Is this sentence is correct? if not? How it should be?
  

Top answer

The First Party's share in the company has become 36% after the transfer of 15% of the First Party's shares to the Third Party. However, I hope you realize that '36%' refers to the percent of total shares in the company, but '15%' refers only to a part of the 1st party's shares. 5% of the total shares issued by the company.

— Mister Micawber

  • The First Party's share in the company has become 36% after the transfer of 15% of the First Party's shares to the Third Party.
  • However, I hope you realize that '36%' refers to the percent of total shares in the company, but '15%' refers only to a part of the 1st party's shares.
  • 5% of the total shares issued by the company.
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1 Answers
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The First Party's share in the company has become 36% after the transfer of 15% of the First Party's shares to the Third Party.

However, I hope you realize that '36%' refers to the percent of total shares in the company, but '15%' refers only to a part of the 1st party's shares. In other words, if the 1st Party originally held 50% of the total shares issued by the company, then 15
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