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Mariott Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Grammar

Which one is more natural and what's the difference between the two?

1. I thought it over after reading your letter.

2. I thought it over after having read your letter.



Thanks for your help.
  

Top answer

I think it should be 'having read', which is a past gerund. The reading occurs before the thinking. html

  • I think it should be 'having read', which is a past gerund.
  • The reading occurs before the thinking.
  • html
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6 Answers
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I think it should be 'having read', which is a past gerund. The reading occurs before the thinking.

Also see this page: http://www.myenglishteacher.net/gerunds.html
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Hi Mariott

Both of your sentences mean the same thing.

I would say that the only difference is that the second one tends to sound excessively formal.
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I forgot to post this, but I can't edit my post anymore for some reason.

Compare it to this example on that page:

8. Tom Lee took lots of biology classes. Those helped him in medical school.

Gerund or gerund phrase: Having taken lots of biology classes

Answer: Having taken lots of biology classes helped him in medical school.

That would give:
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Hi Ferdis

The reason that Mariott does not need to use the perfect form (having read) in her particular sentence is that the use of the word "after" makes it completely unnecessary. That is why I mentioned in my first post that using the perfect form would tend to sound "excessive".

It is completely natural and also perfectly grammatically correct to word her sente
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Thank you, Yankee; I didn't know that. I makes sense, though. Especially when comparing it to 'After I had read the letter, I thought about it' and 'After I read the letter, I thought about it' it does. English is not my first language, so I'm just repeating what I learned in school.
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Many thanks ferdis and Yankee. I guess I can undertand it now.

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