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Grammarwannabe Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

got/gotten

0I remember reading once that there was a difference between got/gotten.02br
02br
00Most grammar books say that they are the same. Does anyone know the difference?0-
  

Top answer

0 In American English, 01b 00got02b 00 is the simple past tense form of the verb get and 01b 00gotten02b 00 is the past participle. 0-

  • 0 In American English, 01b 00got02b 00 is the simple past tense form of the verb get and 01b 00gotten02b 00 is the past participle.
  • 0-
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8 Answers
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0 In American English, 01b00got02b00 is the simple past tense form of the verb get and 01b00gotten02b00 is the past participle. 02br
00I believe 01b00got02b00 is used for both in British English.0-
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0Oops. That last post was from me. I'd forgotten to sign in. 050010id10
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0 00In American English, 01b00got02b00 is the simple past tense form of the verb get and 01b00gotten02b00 is the past participle. 02br
00I believe 01b00got02b00 is used for both in British English.02br
02br
01b00You're right. In BrE, it is 01i00get got got02i
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0 The same comments apply to 01i00forgot 02i00and 01i00forgotten02i00.02br
02br
00 CJ0-
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0 But 01i00gotten02i00 is not used after 01i00have02i00, even in AmE, for the idiom 01i00have got02i00, meaning 01i00have02i00 (present tense).02br
02br
01i00I have got a pen. Has he got $2?02br
02br
02i
01b00Not02b01i02br
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0Thanks Calif Jim. That's what I was looking for. I thought there was some kind of rule for "have got" as opposed to "have gotten"02br
02br
00Inever thought of it as being an idiom. Thanks again.0-
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0Although, 'gotten' is no longer used in UK English, let's not forget though that in the UK we still use this 'archaic' form of 'gotten' as a past participle of 'get' as in:02br
02br
01b01i00for01font00get02font00 - for01font00got02font00 -for01font
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1font00I found this on the Internet and the explanation is similar to what Calif has explained.02font02br
02br
01a05000 02a02br
02br
00Here's what David Crystal says about 01b00The 01i00gotten/got02i00 disti

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