"good taste" vs "a good taste"

Question

He has good taste in music. He has a good taste in music.1. How is good taste in something(without the article A, like in statement number 1) grammatically correct?2. Is the second statement perfectly fine?3. Why is the first statement more common? Does it have anything to do with informal usage, just like for example people simply say "USA" instead of the grammatically correct "the USA" ?Thanks in advance!

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

Dibgood taste

taste is an abstract uncountable noun. No article.

I'm not familiar with the second sentence at all. It sounds wrong to my ear.

CJ

Dib · Answer

CalifJim Dibgood tastetaste is an abstract uncountable noun. No article.I'm not familiar with the second sentence at all. It sounds wrong to my ear.CJ

Thanks

http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/taste_1?q=taste

Then why did they use articles before taste in most of their examples. I am confused

CalifJim · Answer

DibThen why did they use articles before taste in most of their examples.

They were giving examples where "taste" is countable. The only dictionary example relevant to your sentence is the one with "acquired a taste for classical music". Here "taste" is used as "appreciation" is used. In this context an article is used, whether you use "taste" or "appreciation".

I acquired [a taste / an appreciation] for classical music.

"to acquire a taste for" works the same as "to acquire an appreciation for".
____________

In your sentence "taste" is used as "judgment" is used. In this context an article is not used.

judgment: the ability to make decisions or to make good decisions, or the act of developing an opinion, esp. after careful thought:

[ U ] to show good/poor judgment

http://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/american-english/judgment_1?q=judgment

"to have good taste in" works the same as "to show good judgment in".
____________

I can't explain in any detail why some words follow one grammatical pattern and others follow a different pattern. I suspect, however, that the verbs 'acquire' and 'have' are at least in part the governing factors. When you acquire "a taste" or "an appreciation" for something, you begin to have a sort of feeling toward it. It's not absolute.

The use of 'good' also influences the choice. "good taste" and "good judgment", when you have them, are like absolutes. There aren't several kinds of "good taste" or "good judgment", so you don't have "a good taste" and "another good taste" or "a good judgment" and "another good judgment" (in the relevant reading).

It's probably better just to learn the patterns and how they are used rather than to analyze them to death. Sometimes there is no adequate explanation.

CJ

"good taste" vs "a good taste"

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