0
Pructus Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Gone to VS been to
Hello.....
As a non-native of English, there seems to be some difference in sense.
(A) "have gone to" seems to mean "went there for some specific purpose" and (B )"have been to" just means "just have the experience to be there".
Or, (A) conveys more emotional sense compared to (B).
Is this close to native's sense of English?
As a non-native of English, there seems to be some difference in sense.
(A) "have gone to" seems to mean "went there for some specific purpose" and (B )"have been to" just means "just have the experience to be there".
Or, (A) conveys more emotional sense compared to (B).
Is this close to native's sense of English?
Top answer
Much depends on context. In the sentences below, for example #1 suggests that he is now in New York and #2 suggests that he is not. THere is no 'emotional' sense to either.
- Much depends on context.
- In the sentences below, for example #1 suggests that he is now in New York and #2 suggests that he is not.
- THere is no 'emotional' sense to either.
- 1.
- He has gone to New York.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
2 Answers
0
Much depends on context. In the sentences below, for example #1 suggests that he is now in New York and #2 suggests that he is not. THere is no 'emotional' sense to either.
1. He has gone to New York.
2,. He has been to New York.
1. He has gone to New York.
2,. He has been to New York.
00
Related Questions