It demonstrates how rising powers, traditional American allies, having watched this administration in action, have decided that there's no cost in lining up with America's enemies and no profit in lining up with a U.S. president given to apologies and appeasement.
1. Does "given to" modify "a U.S. president"?
2. Suppose it does, is "given to" equal "who has given to" or "who is given to"?
Thank you.
Tinanam
Top answer
1-- Yes 2-- No. 'with tendencies toward'
— Mister Micawber
1-- Yes 2-- No.
'with tendencies toward'
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"It demonstrates how rising powers, traditional American allies, having watched this administration in action, have decided that there's no cost in lining up with America's enemies and no profit in lining up with a U.S. president given to apologies and appeasement."