0 The other day I watched an episode of a comedy series and one of the characters (supposed to be from the North of England and working class) said "Give me them". Is it correct? 0-
Top answer
0 yes it is 02br 00"give me them" or "give them to me" are both correct and have the same meaning 0-
— Amandine
0 yes it is 02br 00"give me them" or "give them to me" are both correct and have the same meaning 0-
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0 If the character is supposed to be from the north, he would most likely say "Gi's 'em" or "give us them" even when speaking in the 1st person singular. 0-
0 My English-Japanese dictionary says; 02br 02br 00When the two objects of "give" are both pronouns like him and it, "I gave it to him" is most natural. When "it" is emphasized, people often say "I gave him IT!", and when "him" is emphasized, they often say "I gave it HIM!". 02br 02br 00paco 0-
0 There might be some emphasis in this kind of context: 02br 02br 001. "So what do you want – the blue ones or the red ones?" "Neither. Give me 01i00them02i00!" 02br 00— pointing to the yellow ones. 02br 02br 00Or sometimes in a longer phrase: 02br 02br 002. "Give me 01i00them02i0