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Anewcomer Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

get/have+bare/infinitives/participle

0Dear Teachers02br
02br
00I often see the verb "get" and "have" followed by infinitives, bare infinitves, participle. 02br
02br
00What is the difference in each form to other forms02br
02br
00E.g: I have more people to work for me.02br
02br
00 I have more people working for me.02br
02br
00 I have more people work for me.02br
02br
00E.g: I get my laptop to work again.02br
02br
00 I get my laptop working again.02br
02br
00 I get my laptop work again.02br
02br
00 What is the difference in each form to other forms02br
02br
00Thanks0-
  

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5 Answers
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0 So are all of these sentence below grammatical and used by native speaker?02br
02br
02br
00E.g: I have more people to work for me.02br
00       I have more people working for me.02br
00       I have more people work for me.02br
00E.g: I get my laptop to work again.02br
00       I get my laptop working again.02br
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2br
00E.g: I have more people to work for me. - This appears to me an incomplete sentence. 02br
00" I have many people01sup00 02sup01sub00working 02sub00for me"- good 02br
02br
00 "I have a lot of people working for me" good. But 01sub00"more"02sub00 infers a contrast with somethi
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01cite10Anewcomer12cite10So are all of these sentence11b11span10s12span10 12b10below grammatical and used by native speaker11b11span10s12span12b10?12blockquote
10Hi,02br
00it d
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Anewcomer12cite10E.g: I have more people to work for me.12br
12br
10 I have more people working for me.12br
12br
10 I have more people work for me.12br
12br
10E.g: I get my laptop to work again.12br
12br
10 I get my laptop working ag
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