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Navitasan Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Gerund/infinitive
1-They decided to pay for constructing a new monument.
2-They decided to pay to construct a new monument.
Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?
Does "1" imply that the payment will be made after the construction is over?
Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?
2-They decided to pay to construct a new monument.
Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?
Does "1" imply that the payment will be made after the construction is over?
Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?
Top answer
Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences? -- No, and they are both synonymous with 'pay for the construction of'. - - No.
- Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?
- -- No, and they are both synonymous with 'pay for the construction of'.
- - - No.
- Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?
- -- No.
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1 Answers
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Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?-- No, and they are both synonymous with 'pay for the construction of'.
Does "1" imply that the payment will be made after the construction is over?-- No.
Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?-- No. The grammatically, 'they' is the subject of 'pay'. Semantically, there is no indication of wh
Does "1" imply that the payment will be made after the construction is over?-- No.
Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?-- No. The grammatically, 'they' is the subject of 'pay'. Semantically, there is no indication of wh
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