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Edwardfung Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
Gerund or to infinitive!
hi everyone,
Can anyone tell me why the highlighted part of the following sentence use "to infinitive" instead of gerund!
The Australian authorities fear about 20 people have died as a result of one of the worst heatwaves in 100 years to hit the south-east of the country.
thank you
edward
Can anyone tell me why the highlighted part of the following sentence use "to infinitive" instead of gerund!
The Australian authorities fear about 20 people have died as a result of one of the worst heatwaves in 100 years to hit the south-east of the country.
thank you
edward
Top answer
Hi. Infinitive "to hit" here acts as an adverbial modifier towards the word "heatwaves", indicating the action which has happened. It seems to me that "to have hit" there would be better.
- Hi.
- Infinitive "to hit" here acts as an adverbial modifier towards the word "heatwaves", indicating the action which has happened.
- It seems to me that "to have hit" there would be better.
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1 Answers
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Hi. Infinitive "to hit" here acts as an adverbial modifier towards the word "heatwaves", indicating the action which has happened. It seems to me that "to have hit" there would be better.
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