0
Rambharosey Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Gerund or Participle..

In 1920, he began translating Sanskrit verses into English.

Is 'translating' used as a Gerund or a participle? What is an easy way to identify.

Thanks,
Bharosey.
  

Top answer

I think it depends on who you ask. Rather than finding a label for translating , it would do just as well for your understanding of grammar if you thought of began translating as a catenative structure consisting of two verbs. The verb after begin can be in the -ing form or in the to (infinitive) form.

— CalifJim

  • I think it depends on who you ask.
  • Rather than finding a label for translating , it would do just as well for your understanding of grammar if you thought of began translating as a catenative structure consisting of two verbs.
  • The verb after begin can be in the -ing form or in the to (infinitive) form.
  • CJ
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

5 Answers
0
I think it depends on who you ask.

Rather than finding a label for translating, it would do just as well for your understanding of grammar if you thought of began translating as a catenative structure consisting of two verbs. The verb after begin can be in the -ing form or in the to (infinitive) form.

CJ
0
0
Thanks CJ. Not sure if your response answers my question though...
0
0
No. It doesn't answer the question. It says that I don't think there is an answer that everyone agrees on. You are just as likely to be right saying "gerund" as saying "participle". That's why many grammarians prefer calling such forms "-ing forms", especially when it's not clear whether the -ing form acts more like a noun (gerund) or more like an adjective (participle), as in t
0
0
Yes, I think it is a clear case of Gerund.

Participles are adjective forms and I don't see that being applicable here.
0
0
rambharosey I think it is a clear case of Gerund.
OK. That works for me!

CJ
0

Related Questions