Gerund or Infinitive?

Question

One grammar book says that when you make a general statement, be sure to use a gerund form as its subject, not an infinitive form. Let me cite the example sentences from the book.

Playing games is a fun way of improving your memory skills. (right)
To play games is a fun way of improving your memory skills. (wrong)

The other book, however, says differently. It says both are correct.

To work provides people with personal satisfaction as well as money. (right)
Working provides people with personal satisfaction as well as money. (right)

To sneeze spread germs. (right)
Sneezing spread germs. (right)

To shoplift is considered a serious crime. (right)
Shoplifting is considered a serious crime. (right)

So, naturally I am in a fog. Please help me dissipate it.

Nona the brit · Accepted Answer

I think that the infinitive form is not so much incorrect as 'stuffy' in these situations. Not a natural way of speaking.

It may have a place in very formal circumstances. 'To err is human; to forgive divine' being the classic example. I can't see the bible being re-written to 'erring is human; forgiving divine'.

Mister Micawber · Answer

Propriety also depends on the situation, Koyama. If we are referring to the action or process, then the infinitive does not work, as in:

X 'To sneeze spreads germs.' (wrong)-- This one is extremely awkward, because it is not the concept but the process that does the spreading.
'Sneezing spreads germs.' (right)-- Therefore, only this version makes good sense.

'Playing games is a fun way of improving your memory skills.' (right)
'To play games is a fun way of improving your memory skills.' (wrong)-- Here, the second one is 'wrong' and sounds so, because of the lack of parallelism, which the first sentence exhibits: 'playing' - 'improving'.

'To shoplift is considered a serious crime.' (right)
'Shoplifting is considered a serious crime.' (right)-- Here, either seems equally satisfactory, primarily because there is not the legislation against the infinitive form that we saw in the previous examples.

As Nona has shown with her Biblical quote, usage can also favour the infinitive.

Umut HIZAR · Answer

So shall we say it is a correct usage when there is a parallelism within the action performed and the verbal given;

'Playing games is a fun way of improving your memory skills.' (right)
'To play games is a fun way to improve your memory skills.' (right)

Regarding the parallelism necessary can we say that when we put a verb after a preposition, we normally use an -ing form not an infinitive;

"You can't make an omelette without breaking eggs".(NOT .....without to break eggs)

"Always check the oil before starting the car".(NOT......... before to start the car)

"Being objected to working on Sundays is a tyranny"(NOT.........to work on Sundays BUT ........ to Sunday work)

Anonymous · Answer

I've always thought of the gerund as the concept of an action, rather than the process or actual occurrence of an action. If what you want in the sentence is a noun, contemporary English speakers prefer gerunds. That's why they tend to be preferred for subjects. Because a preposition takes a noun object, gerunds should likewise be used, as per your examples.

An infinitive, on the other hand, is actually an unconjugated verb, (though it occasionally goes in a noun slot.) The "to" in infinitives is not a preposition, technically it's a "particle". (I think; I hope I'm not losing anyone) The only reason it's there is because the verb is separated from the subject by the first verb (the conjugated, "finite" one). The infinitive is almost invariably the second action, chronologically speaking. (there is yet a a category of verbs, such as 'like' and 'start', which may be followed by either)

Example: I stopped to smoke. Obviously, first I stopped, then I smoked. Contrast that with "I stopped smoking." Now we're not talking about two actions in sequence, but someone quitting a habit. The same for "Smoking is bad for you." Who is smoking? No one; we're talking about the habit, the thing in abstract.

So, is it as clear as day or as clear as mud? Reading over my response, I'm not sure I didn't muddy the issue . . . ;-)

take care!

Rhea.

CalifJim · Answer

Regarding the parallelism necessary can we say that when we put a verb after a preposition, we normally use an -ing form not an infinitive;

After a preposition only the gerund form is used. That's true. You are quite right about that. But it has nothing to do with parallelism. It's just a rule that applies regardless of whether the context has parallelism or not.
The original question in this thread was about infinitives and/or gerunds in the subject position, where they would not be preceded by a preposition. And the choice of form in the subject position does not depend on the use of the same form elsewhere in the sentence. For example, the use of an infinitive later in the sentence does not mean that the subject should also be an infinitive. That said, parallelism is probably better in sentences which are equative -- for example, where you say that one thing is another: To X is to Y or Xing is Ying.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

0 FYI: this quote is actually from Alexander Pope in "An Essay on Criticism." I forgive you. 0-

Goodman · Answer

0 01blockquote

01cite10Mister Micawber12cite10Propriety also depends on the situation, Koyama. If we are referring to the action or process, then the infinitive does not work, as in: 12br
12br
11b10X12b10 'To sneeze spreads germs.' (wrong)-- This one is extremely awkward, because it is not the concept but the process that does the spreading. 12br
10'Sneezing spreads germs.' (right)-- Therefore, only this version makes good sense. 12br
12br
10'Playing games is a fun way of improving your memory skills.' (right) 12br
10'To play games is a fun way of improving your memory skills.' (wrong)-- Here, the second one is 'wrong' and sounds so, because of the lack of parallelism, which the first sentence exhibits: 'playing' - 'improving'. 12br
12br
10'To shoplift is considered a serious crime.' (right) 12br
10'Shoplifting is considered a serious crime.' (right)-- Here, either seems equally satisfactory, primarily because there is not the legislation against the infinitive form that we saw in the previous examples. 12br
12br
10As Nona has shown with her Biblical quote, usage can also favour the infinitive. 12br
12br
12blockquote

10I agree with everything Mister Micrawber said. There are situations and contexts where infinitive and gerunds can both work, but some just sound awful with infinitive. 02br
02br
00To get / getting into a fight with someone over a parking space is stupid in my opinion.- both are ok02br
02br
00To deposit/ 00 00depositing half a million dollars into the wrong account is an unforgivable mistake in my opinion. – both are fine.02br
02br
00Dancing and singing are my favorite pastimes.- ok02br
02br
00To dance and to sing are my favorite pastimes, -Absolutely not!0-

Cool Breeze · Answer

0 01blockquote

01cite10CalifJim12cite10After a preposition only the gerund form is used. That's true. You are quite right about that. 12br
12blockquote

10Hi CJ02br
02br
00Just out of curiosity: could you please tell me what your opinion on 01i00"Swing low, sweet chariot, coming 01b01u00for02u00 to carry02b00 me home" 02i00is.02br
02br
00Cheers02br
00CB0-

Anonymous · Answer

Hi CB,
As far as I know, bold "to" after "for" does not make "carry" a noun. It's just an infinitive of purpose.

Cool Breeze · Answer

AnonymousAs far as I know, bold "to" after "for" does not make "carry" a noun. It's just an infinitive of purpose.

I don't know anyone that has considered carry a noun in "coming for to carry me home". What is odd is that an infinitive is used after a preposition in this phrase. We don't say:
I am interested in to hear it.
Let's talk about to go there.
He had an opportunity of to visit Cairo.
A gerund is used after prepositions and thus the song should go: "Swing low, sweet chariot, coming for carryingme home." That sounds ungrammatical, though!

CB

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