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Roky0071 Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Gerund and infinitive in the same sentence

a. It's better to have one of our allies close to us than having not at all.

b. Having one of our allies close to us is better than to have none at all.

c. It's better to have one of our allies close to us than to have not at all.

d. Having one of our allies close to us is better than having none at all.

My questions are as follows:

1. Is it possible to be the gerund and the infinitive in the same sentence like above?

2. Do they all work in parallel?

3. If not than which sentences are in parallel?

4. Are they grammatically correct?

5. Do they carry the same meaning?

  

Top answer

a. It's better to have one of our allies close to us than having none of them . OK b.

— AlpheccaStars

  • a.
  • It's better to have one of our allies close to us than having none of them .
  • OK b.
  • Having one of our allies close to us is better than to have none at all.
  • No.
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1 Answers
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a. It's better to have one of our allies close to us than having none of them. OK

b. Having one of our allies close to us is better than to have none at all. No.

c. It's better to have one of our allies close to us than to have

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