0
Anonymous Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

fuzzy 'can' and 'could' distinctions in past

0Hi,02br
02br
00I think a person is usually taught that the modal 'can' denotes ability, like the ability to do something, eg, taking a heavy object to a place; and 'could' can be used like 'can' similarly in some situations but ususally denotes a person's intention along with action.02br
02br
00But this can work functionally for present time situations but doesn't seem to work when put context in the past time frame.02br
02br
00I was sick, so I couldn't play tennis. -- this past 'could' doesn't indicate any intention but indicates his ability; but there is any tense to use to reflect that, as it seems to me.02br
02br
00I am sick, so I can't play tennis. -- reflects rightly the ability of me.0-
  

Top answer

0 Do you have a question to ask? 0-

— Philip

  • 0 Do you have a question to ask?
  • 0-
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

4 Answers
0
0 Do you have a question to ask? 0-
0
0
0Yes.02br
02br
00I wrote:02br
02br
00I was sick, so I couldn't play tennis. -- this past 'could' doesn't indicate any intention but indicates his ability; but there is any tense to use to reflect that, as it seems to me.02br
02br
00Is this one of the limitations of the English language: don't have a tense and/or modal? to express action
0
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Anonymous12cite10I was sick, so I couldn't play tennis. -- this past 'could' doesn't indicate any intention but indicates his ability; but there is 11font11del10any12del10 no12font10 tense to use to reflect that, as it seems to me.12blockquote
1
0
0
1i00I was sick, so I 01b00couldn't 02b00play tennis.02i02br
02br
01i00I was sick, so I01b00 wasn't able to02b00 play tennis. 02i02br
01i00I was sick, so I01b00 couldn't have02b00 played tennis, as my accuser says, even if I 01b00(had) wanted02b
0

Related Questions