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Magixo Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
FUTURE TIME CLAUSE
How should I say:
1) The children won't go to bed unless they have had a glass of milk.
2) The children won't go to bed unless they have a glass of milk.
Are they both right? How does a native speaker feel about these two? What is the difference between them?
Thank you very much,
Magixo
1) The children won't go to bed unless they have had a glass of milk.
2) The children won't go to bed unless they have a glass of milk.
Are they both right? How does a native speaker feel about these two? What is the difference between them?
Thank you very much,
Magixo
Top answer
Hi Magixo Both sentences are OK. However, sentence 1 makes it clear that the children will go to bed only after drinking a glass of milk. e.
- Hi Magixo Both sentences are OK.
- However, sentence 1 makes it clear that the children will go to bed only after drinking a glass of milk.
- e.
- " In other words, maybe the children want to drink a glass of milk after they've gotten into their beds.
- e.
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1 Answers
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Hi Magixo
Both sentences are OK. However, sentence 1 makes it clear that the children will go to bed only after drinking a glass of milk. I'd say that sentence 2 would generally be interpretted to mean pretty much the same thing (i.e. "The children won't go to bed unless they drink a glass of milk first.")
Ultimately the main difference between the two sentences is tha
Both sentences are OK. However, sentence 1 makes it clear that the children will go to bed only after drinking a glass of milk. I'd say that sentence 2 would generally be interpretted to mean pretty much the same thing (i.e. "The children won't go to bed unless they drink a glass of milk first.")
Ultimately the main difference between the two sentences is tha
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