Formalism: Got vs. Gotten

Question

Hey there, guys (and hello, Clive). If I'm not mistaken, nowadays, there is little to no distinction between "has got" and "has gotten," am I correct? I examined The Lord of the Rings: The Fellowship of the Ring, and the instance that the book used was this: "[The ring] has got me!" Naturally, this sentence signaled a red flag in my mind. But I understand that it is likely a colloquialism, no? A simple yes or no would be great! Thanks.

-rozarria

Yankee · Accepted Answer

Hi Rozarria

The expression "to have got" is idiomatic, and is used to mean the same thing as "to have" (meaning "to possess").
Click http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=have+got&r=66 and look at definition 63.

Since I presume the intended meaning in your sentence is something similar to "possess", the word "got" can be omitted with no change in meaning.

In British English, I think "have got" or "has got" are also used as the present perfect form of the verb "to get".

When you use "have gotten" or "has gotten", that is the present perfect form of the verb "to get" in American English.

Rozarria · Answer

Wow, thank you for clearing that out for me, Yankee! I understand now!

-rozarria

Anonymous · Answer

I know this is an old one but your first sentence struck a bit false. I think the expression being used more closely means "the ring has gained possession of me" as opposed to your suggestion along the lines of "the ring owns me" A fine distinction, but I believe the former  conveys a sense of time as well as struggle against the acquisition that the latter does not. In that sense, it would appear a past participle was indeed intended and the choice of "got" vs. "gotten" comes down squarely on the place the author was educated.

Formalism: Got vs. Gotten

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