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Anonymous Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

For him to vs to get him to

Are these sentences both correct?

The only way for him to listen is for me to be strict.

The only way to get him to listen is for me to be strict.


Thanks

  

Top answer

If you mean do they mean the same thing, no. The second is a natural sentence with a clear meaning. The first doesn't make much sense to me.

— Anonymous

  • If you mean do they mean the same thing, no.
  • The second is a natural sentence with a clear meaning.
  • The first doesn't make much sense to me.
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1 Answers
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If you mean do they mean the same thing, no. The second is a natural sentence with a clear meaning. The first doesn't make much sense to me.

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