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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Finite verbs and modals

Hi, if a finite verb is marked for tense and agrees with the subject, where does that leave verbs coming after modals (e.g. 'I may go', 'We will see')? Surely none of these verbs are marked for tense?
  

Top answer

It's the bare infinitive that follows modals.

— Fivejedjon

  • It's the bare infinitive that follows modals.
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6 Answers
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It's the bare infinitive that follows modals.
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Yup, but every sentence needs a finite verb right? One marked for tense? And bare infinitives are not marked for tense, so where is the finite verb?
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The modals are finite verbs.
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How so? Modals don't show tense ('He may go' for future, 'He may have gone' for past etc) and are not marked for person or plurality (No 'I will go', 'He wills go'). Aren't these determining features of finite verbs?
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Could anyone add to this?
Thanks Emotion: smile
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Could, might, should and would are technically the past tenses of can, may, shall and will respectively.

Although must is now used with a present-tense meaning, it was originally the past tense of a verb we no longer use.
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