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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Finite to non-finite conversion

non-finite version: He lost a fortune gambling.

finite version:

1. He lost a fortune when he was gambling.

2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.

Which one of the finite clause is the most approximate and logical to the true meaning of the non-finite clause?

Thank you very much.
  

Top answer

I would go with this: He lost a fortune because he was gambling.

  • I would go with this: He lost a fortune because he was gambling.
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3 Answers
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I would go with this:

He lost a fortune because he was gambling.
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Is there any difference?

1. He lost a fortune because he gambled.

2. He lost a fortune because he was gambling.

Shouldn't the gambling finish first, and then we know he lost?

Thanks agin.
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He has presumably finished in both cases. Past continuous does not necessarily extend and further into its future than past simple.

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