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PreciousJones Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Family/people

I have a few questions here:

The people have spoken. - I assume this is the correct way of saying it.

What about:

My family has spoken. - Why isn't it have when family is also a collection of people but in a household?

Thank you.
  

Top answer

There are two different concepts here: whether a word is grammatically singular or plural, and whether the thing it refers to seems to be "logically" singular or plural. "people" (in your sense) is grammatically plural, while "family" is grammatically singular, explaining "people have" and "family has". However, you can, in British English, use plural verb forms with grammatically singular but logically plural subjects.

  • There are two different concepts here: whether a word is grammatically singular or plural, and whether the thing it refers to seems to be "logically" singular or plural.
  • "people" (in your sense) is grammatically plural, while "family" is grammatically singular, explaining "people have" and "family has".
  • However, you can, in British English, use plural verb forms with grammatically singular but logically plural subjects.
  • In this vein, "My family have spoken" is also possible.
  • I ought to know this, but I'm not sure if this usage is actually viewed as wrong in American English, or is just less common.
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2 Answers
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There are two different concepts here: whether a word is grammatically singular or plural, and whether the thing it refers to seems to be "logically" singular or plural. "people" (in your sense) is grammatically plural, while "family" is grammatically singular, explaining "people have" and "family has".

However, you can, in British English, use plural verb forms with grammatically
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I would agree, in British English you can say both "my family has spoken" and "my family have spoken". I don't know about American English.

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