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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Failing and fails

Hi I am a bit confused

Someone fails an exam is .......

Someone fails at school is .......

Someone failing college is .......

Someone failing to keep a promise is .......

Someone is failing me.

Someone is failing in school.

So I reckon the forms are fails/failing/is failing + noun or preposition

and I know "fails" is verb for 3rd person and "is failing" is verb in continuous tense

but what I about "failing" just by itself? Is it still a verb? or noun? or adjective? or just plain incorrect to say?

thank you
  

Top answer

Anonymous Hi I am a bit confused Someone fails an exam is .. Someone fails at school is .. Someone failing college is ..

  • Anonymous Hi I am a bit confused Someone fails an exam is ..
  • Someone fails at school is ..
  • Someone failing college is ..
  • Someone failing to keep a promise is ..
  • Someone is failing me.
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9 Answers
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AnonymousHi I am a bit confused
Someone fails an exam is ..
Someone fails at school is ..
Someone failing college is ..
Someone failing to keep a promise is ..
Someone is failing me.
Someone is failing in school.

So I reckon the forms are fails/failing/is failing + noun or preposition
and I know "fails" is verb for 3rd person and "is f
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The verb+ing form is called the present participle. It can be used in three ways:

1) As part of the continuous tenses

2) a modifier of a noun or pronoun

3) As a noun.

Someone fails an exam is .. incorrect.

Someone who fails an exam is an unprepared student.


Som
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Anonymouswhat about "failing" just by itself?
This sentence

Someone who is failing at school is not doing well.

can be reduced to this sentence by removing 'who is'

Someone failing at school is not doing well.

Similarly,

Please present your tickets to the person who is standing
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Hi I am the TC

Thank you all for your informative inputs, I am almost there, just a few bit more to clear things out.

When AlpheccaStars and CalifJim said

Someone fails an exam is .. incorrect
I dont quite get it. It is in its most basic form subject + verb + object. Why is it not correct?

Is it be
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"The same cannot be done if there is no -ing.

The sentence

Someone who fails at school is not doing well.

cannot be reduced to this sentence by removing 'who'"

I agree. It cannot be reduced by removing who. However, who fails can be replaced by present participle failing.
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AnonymousHi I am the TC
Thank you all for your informative inputs, I am almost there, just a few bit more to clear things out.
When AlpheccaStars and CalifJim said
Someone fails an exam is .. incorrect
I dont quite get it. It is in its most basic form subject + verb + object. Why is it not correct?
Is it because of the "is" in the middle? So "Someone
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AnonymousAnd then I did a bit more searching on the Internet, a webpage said
In formal English, we would use a possessive with the –ing form. In informal English, many people do not.
* I'm angry about his missing the meeting.
* Do you mind my coming?
What does it mean by many people do not use possessive + -ing in informal English?
And is this posse
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AnonymousI did a bit more searching on the Internet, a webpage said ...
What you read on the webpage is not directly related to your original question. That page is saying that there are two ways to indicate the subject of a gerund clause - possessive case or objective case (my or me; his or him; etc.)

Formal: I'm angry a
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Thank you AlpheccaStars! It is so much clear now!

So English has these two rules

1. "who is" can be omitted

2. subordinate can be replaced by participial

Then

Someone who is failing at school is ...

is equal to

Someone failing at school is ... (by rule 1)

And

Someone who fails an exam is ...

is equal to

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