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Lololol Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

"Faded" have

"I killed a bee" and "I have killed a bee", what's the difference between these two phrases? I often hear sentences like this: (Pronoun + verb in the past + etc.), but I also hear ones like this: (Pronoun + HAVE/HAS + verb in the past + etc.). There is a meaning change here? And why the "have/has" is omitted on certain phrases?
  

Top answer

Hello, lololol—and welcome to English Forums. You can start by reading this thread in our FAQs on simple past vs present perfect: Simple past takes the past form of the verb (began, ate, killed , etc). )

— Mister Micawber

  • Hello, lololol—and welcome to English Forums.
  • You can start by reading this thread in our FAQs on simple past vs present perfect: Simple past takes the past form of the verb (began, ate, killed , etc).
  • )
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2 Answers
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Hello, lololol—and welcome to English Forums. You can start by reading this thread in our FAQs on simple past vs present perfect:

Simple past takes the past form of the verb (began, ate, killed, etc).
Present perfect takes have/has + the past participle of the verb (begun, eaten, killed, etc.
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Hello ,lololol I'm Driss from Morocco .I think when we use the simple past means the action is occured in the past and finished but with present perfect the action still has an effect in the present or at the moment of speaking .
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