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Mr. Tom Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

Expression: 'By no means he was happy to see me.'

0Hi02br
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00Would you say that the second sentence sounds 01b00odd and unnatural02b00? If no, why not? Please shed some light on it--inversion is killing me these days!!02br
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001- 'By no means 01b00was he happy02b00 to see me.'02br
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002-'By no means 01b00he was happy02b00 to see me.'0-
  

Top answer

0 The second sentence is incorrect. 0-

— Nona the brit

  • 0 The second sentence is incorrect.
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7 Answers
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0 The second sentence is incorrect. 0-
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0Many thanks, Nona02br
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00Last question: What about this one? It is from a movie:02br
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01b00By no means I want to hurt you...02b0-
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Are you sure it wasn't

By no means do I want to hurt you...
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Hi Nona and thanks for raising this question, Tom.

I looked up the phrase 'by no means' in my dictionary and it says that it means 'not at all'. I wonder what it means by 'Not at all was he happy to see me'. Could you please explain what this sentence means? Thank you in advance.

Best wishes,

PBF
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He was not happy to see me
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Nona The BritThe second sentence is incorrect.
Hello, Nona

Sorry I am back with the same topic--inversion.

I just read in a Webster's Dictionary:

Not only the husbands came but also the children.


According to the rules of inversion shouldn't it have been:

Not only did
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I agree with you Tom. I hope a native speaker will help us.
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