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Taka Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Experience

Can 'one's sense of time (time sensation)' be synonymous with 'one's experience of time'? Or is it a bit different?
  

Top answer

If I understand you, I'd say they're quite different. If I say a person has no sense of time, I mean he is unable to keep track of time without a clock or watch. So I would describe one's "sense of time" as good or bad.

  • If I understand you, I'd say they're quite different.
  • If I say a person has no sense of time, I mean he is unable to keep track of time without a clock or watch.
  • So I would describe one's "sense of time" as good or bad.
  • How does a person experience time?
  • This could be his awareness of time passing -- the way it seems to him.
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3 Answers
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If I understand you, I'd say they're quite different.

If I say a person has no sense of time, I mean he is unable to keep track of time without a clock or watch.
So I would describe one's "sense of time" as good or bad.

How does a person experience time? This could be his awareness of time passing -- the way it seems to him.

This is very difficult. To a native s
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I think this sentence describe well what I'm wondering.

The experience of time has little to do with the actually passing of time and has everything to with how we perceive it.

Is the underlined part (i.e. perception) different from our sense of time?
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This is a huge philosophical question. The great minds have always debated these things. What is reality? What is perception?
I'd best defer to CJ on this. He has a good handle on philosophy.

The answer to your question depends a lot on the way you define your terms.
What do we really mean when we say "sense of time"? Perhaps that's actually your question.
I'm sure not al

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