In my Property Law exam, the son was entitled to the fixtures and the daughter was entitled to the chattels under a will. The two were disputing the title to a house that was resting on stumps. The question asked "which of the following is the BEST ARGUMENT FOR THE SON?"
a) [obviously incorrect answer] b) The house is a fixture, therefore the son is entitled to it. c) As it was not a "personal effect", the house belongs to the son. If the daughter wants the house, she should pay the son its value independent of the house d) Both b and c
I selected b), however d) was the "correct" answer. I believe that c) (thus d)) is incorrect because it implies that the son is obliged to sell the house if the daughter wishes to purchase it (obviously no such obligation exists). The lecturer denies that c) that makes such an implication
Who is right and why?
Thank you SJ.
Top answer
I think this is a duplicate posting. Clive
— Clive
I think this is a duplicate posting.
Clive
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