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Sandy Ho Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
Every man to his taste
Every man to his taste.
I know the meaning of this sentence.and I know it's a proverb.
The Internet tells me the saying is recorded from the late 16th century.
But I'm just curious why is "to" here instead of "has" or some other word.
There's gotta be some explanations which I don't know. what is it?
How do you explain it with contemporary english grammar?
Thank you!
I know the meaning of this sentence.and I know it's a proverb.
The Internet tells me the saying is recorded from the late 16th century.
But I'm just curious why is "to" here instead of "has" or some other word.
There's gotta be some explanations which I don't know. what is it?
How do you explain it with contemporary english grammar?
Thank you!
Top answer
It can be viewed as a reduced clause (the suggestions are my own): (Let) Every man (act according) to his taste. Dudley Do-right (is coming) to the rescue! (Permit) To each his own (preference).
- It can be viewed as a reduced clause (the suggestions are my own): (Let) Every man (act according) to his taste.
- Dudley Do-right (is coming) to the rescue!
- (Permit) To each his own (preference).
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1 Answers
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It can be viewed as a reduced clause (the suggestions are my own):
(Let) Every man (act according) to his taste.
Dudley Do-right (is coming) to the rescue!
(Permit) To each his own (preference).
(Let) Every man (act according) to his taste.
Dudley Do-right (is coming) to the rescue!
(Permit) To each his own (preference).
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