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Lauryne A Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

"ever could have" and subjunctive mood

I am teaching English in Korea. In my textbook, there is a biography of Bethany Hamilton who lost one of her arm's in a shark attack. Here is the problem.

The following is an interview with Bethany.

Reporter 1: Are you upset you didn't win today?
Bethany: I didn't come to win. I came to surf.
Reporter 2: If you could go back to that day, would you still have gone surfing?
Bethany: I wouldn't change what happened to me, because then I wouldn't have this chance in front of all of you ? this chance to embrace more people **than I ever could have with two arms**.

I am confused because of the very last part since I have to translate the exact meaning of the phrase to my students in Korean.

1) than I ever had embraced when I had two arms
2) than I ever could have embraced if I still had two arms

Which is more correct translation from natives' point of view?

  

Top answer

Lauryne A Which is more correct translation from natives' point of view? This one: 2) than I ever could have embraced if I still had two arms CJ

  • Lauryne A Which is more correct translation from natives' point of view?
  • This one: 2) than I ever could have embraced if I still had two arms CJ
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3 Answers
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Lauryne AWhich is more correct translation from natives' point of view?

This one:

2) than I ever could have embraced if I still had two arms

CJ

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Note: the sense here is that the celebrity she has achieved because of the shark attack has enabled her to figuratively "embrace" (not actually embrace physically) millions of people. She was only know in surfing circles before the attack. Now she is known worldwide.

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What does your question have to do with the "subjunctive mood"?

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