Even if the underlying logic no longer applies?
Hello everybody.
I am reading 'The Power of Fifty Bits' by Bob Nease.
But if a rule of thumb works well long enough, it becomes part of human nature and remains there even if the underlying logic no longer applies.
I think there should be an object after apply, shouldn't there?
What does it mean by the bold part?
It means even if our brain doesn't apply that rule or it means even if our the rule seems illogical?
Thanks ??
Top answer
Jamal 1315 no longer applies is no longer valid; can no longer be applied to the phenomenon at hand Jamal 1315 I think there should be an object after apply, shouldn't there? No. An object is not needed.
- Jamal 1315 no longer applies is no longer valid; can no longer be applied to the phenomenon at hand Jamal 1315 I think there should be an object after apply, shouldn't there?
- No.
- An object is not needed.
- If a rule or principle or explanation applies, then it can validly be used to interpret whatever is being explained.
- If it doesn't apply, it does not yield a valid interpretation or result.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
Jamal 1315no longer applies
is no longer valid;
can no longer be applied to the phenomenon at hand
Jamal 1315I think there should be an object after apply, shouldn't there?
No. An object is not needed. If a rule or principle or explanation applies, then it can validly be used to interpret whatever is being e
0
Related Questions