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OttoJ Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Eric's grammar
A grammarian says,
p.285
-What a difference since I have used body wash!
is wrong, and only 'used', the simple past, is possible. This comment is different from what I know: 'have used' means the act of using has continued up to now; 'used' means 'using' is in the past, and you're no longer using it: a difference probably about your body has taken place since you last used it. That body wash has nothing to do with this difference. I think 'have used' and 'used' are both correct, with difference in meaning. But the writer was a man of great intelligence, so I can't presume to think that I could beat him at his first language. What's your opinion?
p.285
-What a difference since I have used body wash!
is wrong, and only 'used', the simple past, is possible. This comment is different from what I know: 'have used' means the act of using has continued up to now; 'used' means 'using' is in the past, and you're no longer using it: a difference probably about your body has taken place since you last used it. That body wash has nothing to do with this difference. I think 'have used' and 'used' are both correct, with difference in meaning. But the writer was a man of great intelligence, so I can't presume to think that I could beat him at his first language. What's your opinion?
Top answer
OttoJ What's your opinion? I don't find either form ('have used', 'used') objectionable, but I would use 'have been using'. I can't imagine that one use of the product could make a big difference, but continuous use might.
- OttoJ What's your opinion?
- I don't find either form ('have used', 'used') objectionable, but I would use 'have been using'.
- I can't imagine that one use of the product could make a big difference, but continuous use might.
- CJ
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1 Answers
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OttoJWhat's your opinion?I don't find either form ('have used', 'used') objectionable, but I would use 'have been using'.
I can't imagine that one use of the product could make a big difference, but continuous use might.
CJ
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