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Sextus Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

Equal to

I would like to know which of the following sentences is correct, or if both are:

"The arguments put forward by A are equal in force to those advanced by B".

"The arguments put forward by A are of equal force to those advanced by B".

It seems to be that the second construction would work only when saying: "Both arguments are of equal force", whereas the first in both cases ("both arguments are equal in force"). Is this right?

Sextus
  

Top answer

I kind of sense you're right with your statement that #2 isn't quite correct. The construction 'of equal force' couldn't be complemented with 'to'. So you'd have to say 'Arguments put forward by A and those advanced by B are of equal force'.

— Waïti

  • I kind of sense you're right with your statement that #2 isn't quite correct.
  • The construction 'of equal force' couldn't be complemented with 'to'.
  • So you'd have to say 'Arguments put forward by A and those advanced by B are of equal force'.
  • Or 'Arguments from both oponents are of equal force'.
  • But let's wait until a native confirms...
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2 Answers
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I kind of sense you're right with your statement that #2 isn't quite correct. The construction 'of equal force' couldn't be complemented with 'to'. So you'd have to say 'Arguments put forward by A and those advanced by B are of equal force'. Or 'Arguments from both oponents are of equal force'.
But let's wait until a native confirms...
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Yes, that's how it seems to me too. In the first sentence, A's arguments are compared with B's. In the second sentence, A's arguments seem at first to be compared with each other (they're equally forceful); but then we find they're to be compared with B's instead.

MrP
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