English Question: Difference between these sentences.

Question

I am quite confused about these sentences.
I know the word “Gone” is past tense of “Go” and it can take object and can’t.

1. The pain has gone.
Here the object is “The pain”.. but what if this sentence is made as
1. The pain is gone.

Does it have the same meaning?

2. Those days are gone.

Similarlly,

2. Those days have gone.

Also, Are these sentences correct? Do these have same meaning?

He is not here, he has gone out.

He is not here, he is gone out.

The verb gone used here is intansitive, I think.

Please help me out!

Best answers are appreciated.

Thanks!

Mister Micawber · Accepted Answer

I know the word “Gone” is past tense of “Go” -- It is the past participle, actually.

and it can take object and can’t.-- It cannot take an object; 'go' is intransitive only.

1. The pain has gone.
Here the object is “The pain”.. -- No, the subject is 'pain'.
1. The pain is gone.

Does it have the same meaning?-- Yes, the intent is the same. Here, 'gone' is an adjective.

2. Those days are gone.

2. Those days have gone.

Also, Are these sentences correct?-- Yes. Do these have same meaning?-- Yes, the present condition is the same: pain-free.

3. He is not here, he has gone out.

3. He is not here, he is gone out.

The verb gone used here is intransitive, I think.-- Yes, in the first of the pair, as always. The second is casual; it is not acceptable in careful writing. 'Out' makes the concept too active to remain a comfortable adjective.

Harry1999 · Answer

Okay. Thanks.

What abot the following sentence?

Oh and pestilence is won when you are lost and I am gone.(It's a sentence from one of the Muford and sons' songs)

is won-- what does it mean?

Who is the agent and patient here? or What is the Subject and Object?

I know pestilence is nuon and works as a subject here..

Why be+ past participle is used here?

Thanks..

Mister Micawber · Answer

pestilence - Subject ('patient')

is won - Verb in passive voice.

Agent is unmentioned

I have no idea what it means. Song lyrics are often murky.

KJinCali79 · Answer

This is rather poetic language as song lyrics often are. It is, therefore, difficult to explain in a literal fashion.  The song, "Winter Winds" is about a man who does not want to be alone, and stays with the woman he is with through the winter, trying to convince himself that he can fall in love with her, but he cannot.In the context of this sentence, "pestilence" is referring to a malign, bad, or evil influence rather than referring to a literal plague. "Is won" here is poetic phrasing, probably to approximately rhyme with "gone" and also to infer that this is an ongoing condition. So the phrase means this bad influence has won (taken over) their relationship, that "no hope can overcome" (the following line).It is more grammatically correct to say "has won," but song lyrics can often make these subtle changes for poetry and emphasis.  Take for example the Christmas Carol, "Joy to the World"...and the phrase "the Lord is come"  This is a deliberate choice of the lyricist, in light of church doctrine, not to say the Lord has come, but that he has come and still is here.  In standard writing you would not likely make such a choice, but in song or poetry this is done to infer something has occurred and is ongoing.

English Question: Difference between these sentences.

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