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Harry1999 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

English question about correct word usage.

Difference between the sentences?

I am trying to figure out the difference between these sentences. When we use “having to” instead present participle, does it change the meaning of the sentence?

1a) I am bored to go to the office.
Vs
1b) I am bored having to go to the office.

2a) How to look pretty without having to wear makeup?
Vs
2b) How to look pretty without wearing makeup?

3a) You can sell arms without always having to use them.
Vs
3b) You can sell arms without always using them.

Can anyone help me with this?

Thanks in advance.
  

Top answer

, does it change the meaning ...? Yes. "having to" comes from the semi-modal idiom "to have to" which means that an obligation is imposed.

— CalifJim

  • , does it change the meaning ...?
  • Yes.
  • "having to" comes from the semi-modal idiom "to have to" which means that an obligation is imposed.
  • If you don't include "having to", there is no idea of obligation in your sentence.
  • Let's take just one example.
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2 Answers
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harry1999When we use “having to” ..., does it change the meaning ...?
Yes. "having to" comes from the semi-modal idiom "to have to" which means that an obligation is imposed. If you don't include "having to", there is no idea of obligation in your sentence.

Let's take just one example. (I'll correct the grammar at the same time.)

I am bo
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CalifJim harry1999When we use “having to” ..., does it change the meaning ...?Yes. "having to" comes from the semi-modal idiom "to have to" which means that an obligation is imposed. If you don't include "having to", there is no idea of obligation in your sentence.Let's take just one example. (I'll correct the grammar at the same time.)I am bored with going to the office.
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