English grammar
Is there a difference between:
(1) I met her this morning.
and:
(2) I've met her this morning.
Is it in any way true that (1) should be preferred when asked past noon (when the period of time is over),
whereas (2) is preferable before midday when the period of time includes the moment of speaking?
The question's been nagging for years and there have been so many so different answers to it on the net, so ...
Grammar Nazis are welcome )
Top answer
(2) does not work well for me, whenever it is said. The reason is not totally clear to me. After all, we say "I've just met her" or "I've met a lot of people this morning".
- (2) does not work well for me, whenever it is said.
- The reason is not totally clear to me.
- After all, we say "I've just met her" or "I've met a lot of people this morning".
- (1) is fine.
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(2) does not work well for me, whenever it is said. The reason is not totally clear to me. After all, we say "I've just met her" or "I've met a lot of people this morning".
(1) is fine.
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