"? Trying to be more precise, in American English, is S1 more likey said than S2? S1: The law becomes effective Jan 1, 2008.
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InfinikIs it correct to say "Effective from Jan 1, 2008..., something will happen..."?Trying to be more precise, in American English, is S1 more likey said than S2?
AvangiI don't believe I've heard S2, but I could be wrong.That's quite helpful, Avangi. I've found quite a few usage of "effetive from + date" in UK governmental websites, suspect it British English?
AvangiI'm very anxious to hear what our British members have to say. Being effective is one thing; becoming effective is quite another. To me, S2 is a misuse of become. But of course if enough people say it, it becomes the law.This perfectly makes sense. I understand that.
AvangiP.S. Did you do a search for "be
Nona The BritEffective from is quite a normal phrase here. You'll often find it in business contexts as a formal way of stating something (for example a new policy/procedure) will start from .Nona, I thought so.
InfinikS2: The law becomes effective from Jan 1, 2008.What bothers me is implicating "becomes" in this travesty.
InfinikAnswer is, Yes. "The new program/l
Structure like "effective + date" makes me very anxious, because I'd think the preposition in-between (eg. "from") has gone missing. Question is, in legal/formal statement, does the structure mean "to become effective"? Such as:
Effective Jan 1, 2008, the regulation will apply to all States.