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PreciousJones Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Drank

Please tell me the difference between these two sentences:

I'd been drinking for a while when we took that picture. And

I drank a lot before taking that picture.

Doesn't it basically mean the same thing?
  

Top answer

Yes. The first is more formal.

  • Yes.
  • The first is more formal.
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12 Answers
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Yes. The first is more formal.
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Thanks Mister Micawber,

How about:

I had drank a lot when we took that picture. Same meaning?

Or I had drank a lot before taking that picture. - redundant but does it mean the same thing?
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No, no, no. Please review your irregular verbs before you worry about subtler points.
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Mister MicawberNo, no, no. Please review your irregular verbs before you worry about subtler points.

I don't understand...
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Drank is not the particle form of "to drink."

I had drank is wrong.
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But the dictionary says otherwise....

I thought drunk was nonstandard?
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Huh. According to the dictionary I just looked at, "drank" is the alternative form of the participle. However, "drunk" is far more commonly used - to the point that I (like Mr. M) thought "drank" was non-standard as the participle.

I assure you, "drunk" is not non-standard.
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Yes, I thought it was wrong. The American Heritage Dictionary offers no alternative to 'drunk'.

drink

VERB:
drank (dr
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Hi guys,



Hmmmm.

I had drank . . . doesn't sound like educated speech to me.

Depends who-all youse hangs out wit, I s'pose.



Clive
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So with three such lofty persons as ourselves ([Emotion: wink]) saying it sure sounds wrong, it would be best to avoid it, yes?

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