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Aruzinsky Posted 21 years ago
Legal Studies

Double Negatives in Alleged Perjury

0 Suppose a perjury case hinges on the interpretation of a single sentence of testimony containing a double negative. Is this sentence given strict boolean interpretation when it favors the defendent? Has this been covered by case law? 02br
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00For example, suppose a man is tried for murder. In court testimony, when asked the question, "Did you kill Bill Smith?", he replies, "I didn't kill nobody." The man is found "not guilty." Later, new irrefutable evidence becomes available that he killed Bill Smith, so the man is then tried for perjury. The man's defence to perjury is that he indeed said that he killed somebody. 0-
  

Top answer

12blockquote 12br 00Case law of which country? 02br 02br 00I think perjury also applies to misleading statements. That said, the meaning of "I didn't kill nobody" is pretty clear.

  • 12blockquote 12br 00Case law of which country?
  • 02br 02br 00I think perjury also applies to misleading statements.
  • That said, the meaning of "I didn't kill nobody" is pretty clear.
  • In this case, two negatives don't add up to a positive.
  • 0-
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3 Answers
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0 HI aruzinsky, 02br
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00Has this been covered by case law?12blockquote
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00Case law of which country? 02br
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00I think perjury also applies to misleading statements. That said, the meaning of "I didn't kill nobody" is pretty clear. In this case, two negatives don't add up to a positive. 0-
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0 01blockquote
02br
10Case law of which country? 12br
12blockquote
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00Preferably, USA. 02br
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Quite apart from the linguistic aspect, the law of England (I cannot speak for anywhere else) has the "double indemnity" rule, which means that you cannot be tried twice on the same facts. This extends, I believe, to being tried for perjury when you have denied the offence of which you were originally accused.

Should a court have to rule on the meaning of "I did not kill nobody" or some

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