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NL888 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
Does "those responsible by God" mean "those that in the sake of God are responsible"?
Context:
The letter refers to the unjust treatment of "three wise men": the murder of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Socrates, the burning of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagoras, and the execution of "the wise king" of the Jews.[101][199] The author explains that in all three cases the wrongdoing resulted in the future punishment of those responsible by God and that when the wise are oppressed, not only does their wisdom triumph in the end, but God punishes their oppressors.[201]
More:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historicity_of_Jesus
The letter refers to the unjust treatment of "three wise men": the murder of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Socrates, the burning of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagoras, and the execution of "the wise king" of the Jews.[101][199] The author explains that in all three cases the wrongdoing resulted in the future punishment of those responsible by God and that when the wise are oppressed, not only does their wisdom triumph in the end, but God punishes their oppressors.[201]
More:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historicity_of_Jesus
Top answer
You have parsed it wrong. It's the punishment, by ***, of those responsible for the wrongdoing.
- You have parsed it wrong.
- It's the punishment, by ***, of those responsible for the wrongdoing.
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2 Answers
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You have parsed it wrong. It's the punishment, by ***, of those responsible for the wrongdoing.
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NL888resulted in the future punishment of those responsible by ***=
resulted in the future punishment by *** | (punishment) of those (who were) responsible
CJ
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