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JJDouglas Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
Does this make sense?
Does the following make sense? I'm afraid the number of pronouns at the end may be confusing (I have a character limit, so the sentence can't really get any longer than it is).
"The manufacturer of a popular line of children's suitcases has lost an intellectual property case to a rival manufacturer, who it claims stole its design."
"The manufacturer of a popular line of children's suitcases has lost an intellectual property case to a rival manufacturer, who it claims stole its design."
Top answer
JJDouglas The manufacturer of a popular line of children's suitcases has lost an intellectual-property case to a rival ( manufacture r) who m the former claimed stole its their design.
- JJDouglas The manufacturer of a popular line of children's suitcases has lost an intellectual-property case to a rival ( manufacture r) who m the former claimed stole its their design.
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3 Answers
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JJDouglasThe manufacturer of a popular line of children's suitcases has lost an intellectual-property case to a rival (manufacturer) whom the former claimed stoleitstheir design.
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Thanks for your reply, but I'm confused about a couple of things.
1). When "manufacturer" is being used to refer to a company, it's a singular collective noun, and so I thought it was wrong to use the pronoun "their"?
2.) Is it definitely "whom" instead of "who"? I thought that in examples like this, "the former claimed" is considered a parenthetical part of the clause, leaving
1). When "manufacturer" is being used to refer to a company, it's a singular collective noun, and so I thought it was wrong to use the pronoun "their"?
2.) Is it definitely "whom" instead of "who"? I thought that in examples like this, "the former claimed" is considered a parenthetical part of the clause, leaving
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