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DirtyGame Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
Does the verb come base always after "to"?
I've been taught since I was kid that the verb after "to" is base, but I'm seeing many native speakers around the web add "ing" to that verb sometimes, is it a noun in that case, or what?
Top answer
To + plain form occurs when the subordinator to marks to -infinitival clauses, as in I want to see them . To + · ing form occurs when to is a preposition taking a gerund-participle clause as complement, as in They're opposed to selling the land. Selling is not a noun but a verb heading an expression that is functionally similar to a noun: violence , for example, could replace selling the land .
- To + plain form occurs when the subordinator to marks to -infinitival clauses, as in I want to see them .
- To + · ing form occurs when to is a preposition taking a gerund-participle clause as complement, as in They're opposed to selling the land.
- Selling is not a noun but a verb heading an expression that is functionally similar to a noun: violence , for example, could replace selling the land .
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2 Answers
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To + plain form occurs when the subordinator to marks to-infinitival clauses, as in I want to see them.
To + ·ing form occurs when to is a preposition taking a gerund-participle clause as complement, as in They're opposed to selling the land. Selling is not a noun but a verb heading an expression that is functionally similar t
To + ·ing form occurs when to is a preposition taking a gerund-participle clause as complement, as in They're opposed to selling the land. Selling is not a noun but a verb heading an expression that is functionally similar t
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