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NL888 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Does " it is easily " mean "it is without question that"?
Context:
The argument from improbability is the big one. In the traditional
guise of the argument from design, it is easily today's most popular
argument offered in favour of the existence of God and it is seen,
by an amazingly large number of theists, as completely and utterly
convincing. It is indeed a very strong and, I suspect, unanswerable
argument - but in precisely the opposite direction from the theist's
intention. The argument from improbability, properly deployed,
comes close to proving that God does not exist. My name for the
statistical demonstration that God almost certainly does not exist is
the Ultimate Boeing 747 gambit.
The argument from improbability is the big one. In the traditional
guise of the argument from design, it is easily today's most popular
argument offered in favour of the existence of God and it is seen,
by an amazingly large number of theists, as completely and utterly
convincing. It is indeed a very strong and, I suspect, unanswerable
argument - but in precisely the opposite direction from the theist's
intention. The argument from improbability, properly deployed,
comes close to proving that God does not exist. My name for the
statistical demonstration that God almost certainly does not exist is
the Ultimate Boeing 747 gambit.
Top answer
It is the most popular argument. No other argument is close to it in popularity. Consider this simpler example.
- It is the most popular argument.
- No other argument is close to it in popularity.
- Consider this simpler example.
- Jean is 15 years old.
- Betty is 25.
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2 Answers
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It is the most popular argument. No other argument is close to it in popularity.
Consider this simpler example.
Jean is 15 years old.
Betty is 25.
Mary is 30.
Consider this simpler example.
Jean is 15 years old.
Betty is 25.
Mary is 30.
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Thanks. This question is crystal clear now.
But I am still a bit confused by the whole meaning the context. Does it tell us that the argument (from improbability) supports ***'s existence in the eyes of believers, while the same argument just proves the non-existence in non-believers' eyes?
But I am still a bit confused by the whole meaning the context. Does it tell us that the argument (from improbability) supports ***'s existence in the eyes of believers, while the same argument just proves the non-existence in non-believers' eyes?
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