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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
Does & Do usages combined with Have & Has
In my mind, most simple explanation =
Does: singular, Do: plural/personal
Has: singular, Have: plural/personal
Obviously it's not THAT simple, but for now let's live by Occams Razor.
Then I recently wrote this sentence:
What do you think?
Does: singular, Do: plural/personal
Has: singular, Have: plural/personal
Obviously it's not THAT simple, but for now let's live by Occams Razor.
Then I recently wrote this sentence:
Does no one have..... etc.Which then caused me to think over and over the proper grammar for that sentence. My grammar is usually pretty good; and I know the common usage of these words. My confusion comes as I try to figure out the correct usage.
What do you think?
Top answer
Hi, In my mind, most simple explanation = Does: singular, Do: plural/personal Has: singular, Have: plural/personal What do you mean by 'personal'? I don't understand what difficulty you are considering. As you probably know, the standard is Do I have .
- Hi, In my mind, most simple explanation = Does: singular, Do: plural/personal Has: singular, Have: plural/personal What do you mean by 'personal'?
- I don't understand what difficulty you are considering.
- As you probably know, the standard is Do I have .
- .
- Do you have .
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7 Answers
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Hi,
In my mind, most simple explanation =
Does: singular, Do: plural/personal
Has: singular, Have: plural/personal
What do you mean by 'personal'?
I don't understand what difficulty you are considering. As you probably know, the standard is
Do I have . . .
Do you have . . .
Does he have . . .
In my mind, most simple explanation =
Does: singular, Do: plural/personal
Has: singular, Have: plural/personal
What do you mean by 'personal'?
I don't understand what difficulty you are considering. As you probably know, the standard is
Do I have . . .
Do you have . . .
Does he have . . .
00
The rules weren't what bothered me. By "personal" I meant {I, you}.
And I realize 'no-one' is singular.
which is why i got confused:
On it's own, it would be:
No-one has...
But when using "does" it becomes:
Does no-one have...
And I realize 'no-one' is singular.
which is why i got confused:
On it's own, it would be:
No-one has...
But when using "does" it becomes:
Does no-one have...
00
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I said in both posts that using
Does no one have...
sounds correct, but when considering rules, it's very weird.
On it's own, it would be:
No-one has...
But when using "does" it becomes:
Does no-one have...
This is my question. Is there justification for doing this? Alternately, I was just looking for input, nothing really depends on my
Does no one have...
sounds correct, but when considering rules, it's very weird.
On it's own, it would be:
No-one has...
But when using "does" it becomes:
Does no-one have...
This is my question. Is there justification for doing this? Alternately, I was just looking for input, nothing really depends on my
00
I found the correct description I was looking for in another thread:
Grammar GeekHas is used ONLY with third person singular: he, she, it.
I have, you have, we have, they have, he has.
In normal speech, "anybody" would take the third person singular: If anyone has a converter, could you ...
However, as CB says in the post above yours, once you have a form of "t
00
Hi,
Tom has . . . Does Tom have . . .
With the auxiliary verb 'do/does', the infinitive form 'have' is used.
Does that help?
Clive
Tom has . . . Does Tom have . . .
With the auxiliary verb 'do/does', the infinitive form 'have' is used.
Does that help?
Clive
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Hi, and welcome to 2015.
The reason is that the "have" in "does no-one have" is in the infinitive - it's NOT the present tense, so it not conjugated and doesn't need to agree with the subject (no-one).
The reason is that the "have" in "does no-one have" is in the infinitive - it's NOT the present tense, so it not conjugated and doesn't need to agree with the subject (no-one).
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