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NL888 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Does "anesthetic medications to be abolished" mean "anesthetic medications that will be abolished"?

Context:

According to current http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharmacological knowledge and the current understanding of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causality, a placebo contains no chemical (or any other agent) that could possibly cause any of the observed worsening in the subject's symptoms. Thus, any change for the worse must be due to some subject-internal factor.
Negative expectations can also cause http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Analgesic effects of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anesthetic medications to be abolished.[2]
The worsening of the subject's symptoms or elimination of positive effects is a direct consequence of their exposure to the placebo, but those symptoms have not been chemically generated by the placebo. Because this generation of symptoms entails a complex of "subject-internal" activities, in the strictest sense, we can never speak in terms of simulator-centred "nocebo effects," but only in terms of subject-centred "nocebo responses."
  

Top answer

NL888 Does "anesthetic medications to be abolished" mean "anesthetic medications that will be abolished"? No, the effects will be abolished. e.

  • NL888 Does "anesthetic medications to be abolished" mean "anesthetic medications that will be abolished"?
  • No, the effects will be abolished.
  • e.
  • the medications will be ineffective.
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3 Answers
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NL888Does "anesthetic medications to be abolished" mean "anesthetic medications that will be abolished"?
No, the effects will be abolished. i.e. the medications will be ineffective.
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Thanks.

Does "this generation of symptoms entails a complex of "subject-internal" activities" mean "this generation of symptoms involves a complex of "subject-internal" activities"?
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NL888Does "this generation of symptoms entails a complex of "subject-internal" activities" mean "this generation of symptoms involves a complex of "subject-internal" activities"?
Yes, or 'is composed of'.

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