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BarbaraPA Posted 19 years ago
Linguistics Studies

Do you believe that Latin-based words are more formal?

In another thread, someone wrote that word of a Latin word origin are considered more formal, and therefore used by more well educated English speakers, over words of Anglo-Saxon origin.

Do you believe this to be true?
  

Top answer

I don't think that most people are really that aware of the origins of the words they use, but we are all aware of what seems 'formal' or 'informal'. Also, well-educated people would use the appropriate word for the context, whether that be formal or informal. I don't see formal as 'educated' and informal as 'uneducated'.

  • I don't think that most people are really that aware of the origins of the words they use, but we are all aware of what seems 'formal' or 'informal'.
  • Also, well-educated people would use the appropriate word for the context, whether that be formal or informal.
  • I don't see formal as 'educated' and informal as 'uneducated'.
  • So I don't agree with that part of their statement.
  • I think it is true that many of the more formal synonyms for anything, are often Latin in origin.
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39 Answers
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I don't think that most people are really that aware of the origins of the words they use, but we are all aware of what seems 'formal' or 'informal'. Also, well-educated people would use the appropriate word for the context, whether that be formal or informal. I don't see formal as 'educated' and informal as 'uneducated'. So I don't agree with that part of their statement. I think it is true that
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Hi,
you guys seem to like that word, "educated"... hmm.
Anyway, I think most technical terms and verbs (used in medicine, engineering, mathematics, etc.) come from Latin, but I'm not sure. If it is true, then you could say Latin words are more... advanced, at another level of complexity in the language.
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Grammar GeekIn another thread, someone wrote that word of a Latin word origin are considered more formal, and therefore used by more well educated English speakers, over words of Anglo-Saxon origin.

Do you believe this to be true?

If true, that would leave the highest percentage of English speakers as poorly-educated.
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Well, personally, I think it's bunk that more highly educated people use formal language most of the time. We'd sound ridiculous if everyone with a master's degree spoke in a formal way when asking about dinner plans with your family or what time the softball game started.

Nona's point about the more well educated your are, the more you are likely to know the best word choice in a given s
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<Well, personally, I think it's bunk that more highly educated people use formal language most of the time. We'd sound ridiculous if everyone with a master's degree spoke in a formal way when asking about dinner plans with your family or what time the softball game started.>

Yes, it's bunk. Bunk, pure and simple.
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Hi GG

I think it is true in some cases that Latin words are a little more formal, but not nearly always. Some of the most common English words derive from Latin, like a pound.As the Normans represented the upper social classes and ruled England, it stands to reason that this is reflected in French loan words from that era - after all, French is just Latin gone bad
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<Many words that made their way into English in the Norman period carry less warmth and feeling than Anglo-Saxon words from the Old English period.

Here are some examples. The words aren't exactly synonymous but they refer to things that are similar in some respects.

hearty - cordial
holy - saint
folk - people
house - manor, palace>


How c
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Let's not forget that much formality in English is not based on word meanings. We also create fomality by using the past tense of verbs and what are traditionally called the past tense of modal auxiliaries.
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Well, that's true, but the post was specifically talking about vocabulary.

This has been interesting to read -- the Norman invaders, speaking "Latin gone bad" (thanks for that, CB), were the upper class afterwards, so their language is more likely (but not definitely) going to be associated with "higher" pursuits.

(I think the reason my back got up from that first post was
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<This has been interesting to read -- the Norman invaders, speaking "Latin gone bad" (thanks for that, CB), were the upper class afterwards, so their language is more likely (but not definitely) going to be associated with "higher" pursuits.>

I've never known a people who didn't use different registers - even the upper classes.

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