I was reading an article where I met this sentence that is strange to my ear: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than THEY DO OTHER MEN".
I'd have written: a) "...than they do it ("it" stays for "(the act of) interruption") to/with/towards other men"; b) "...than they do to/with/towards other men".
As you can see, in my opinion you'd have to use some preposition in any case.
What am I wrong with?
Thanks for your attention (and comprehension)
Top answer
Hello! A first opinion: it's OK to me "... then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".
— Pieanne
Hello!
A first opinion: it's OK to me "...
then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".
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No, "other" is surely correct and necessary in order to prevent misunderstandings, because the sentence means that: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than they (the above-mentioned men, not the women - mentioned before too - nor the men and the women) do OTHER men".
In fact "they" is not so clear as a subject in many cases (like here, for example)
But with "other", it looks as if women were only a "subsection" of men, and I think the point here is to make a difference between men and women. Instead of "men", "humans" could be used.
No preposition is required. "do" is a 'pro-verb'; it substitutes for a verb mentioned earlier, in this case "interrupt". (I've modified the sentence to leave out the irrelevant features.)
Men interrupt women more than men interrupt other men.
Becomes:
Men interrupt women more than they(=men) do(=interrupt) other men.