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Fortiter Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

Do they other man?...

I was reading an article where I met this sentence that is strange to my ear: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than THEY DO OTHER MEN".

I'd have written:
a) "...than they do it ("it" stays for "(the act of) interruption") to/with/towards other men";
b) "...than they do to/with/towards other men".

As you can see, in my opinion you'd have to use some preposition in any case.

What am I wrong with?

Thanks for your attention (and comprehension)
  

Top answer

Hello! A first opinion: it's OK to me "... then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".

  • Hello!
  • A first opinion: it's OK to me "...
  • then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".
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4 Answers
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Hello!
A first opinion: it's OK to me
"... then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".
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Thanks Pieanne.

No, "other" is surely correct and necessary in order to prevent misunderstandings, because the sentence means that: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than they (the above-mentioned men, not the women - mentioned before too - nor the men and the women) do OTHER men".

In fact "they" is not so clear as a subject in many cases (like here, for example)
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But with "other", it looks as if women were only a "subsection" of men, and I think the point here is to make a difference between men and women. Instead of "men", "humans" could be used.
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No preposition is required. "do" is a 'pro-verb'; it substitutes for a verb mentioned earlier, in this case "interrupt". (I've modified the sentence to leave out the irrelevant features.)

Men interrupt women
more than
men interrupt other men.

Becomes:

Men interrupt women
more than
they(=men) do(=interrupt) other men.

Similarly, we can h

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