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XVI Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

Do they have the same meaning?

If we object to this kind of bad luck as unfair, it must be because we object to people's suffering disadvantages through no fault of their own

and

If we object to this kind of bad luck as unfair, it must be because we object to the fact that people suffer disadvantages through no fault of their own

Do they have the same meaning?


Thanks

  

Top answer

XVI Do they have the same meaning? Yes.

  • XVI Do they have the same meaning?
  • Yes.
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1 Answers
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XVIDo they have the same meaning?

Yes.

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