Greetings, everyone! Hope all is well! In a critical analysis of a certain hypothesis (Frequency Hypotheis), Rod Ellis proclaimed the hypothesis was weak since it was "discriptive" rather than "explanatory". Do this the two terms Ellis applied in his evaluation of the hypothesis the same as Chomsky's descriptive and explanatory adequacies? If not, how would you delineate the distinction between them? By the way, who is the individual whose name is most frequently associated with the above hypothesis - that is, Frequency Hypothesis?
Many thanks in advance, Farhad Vafajoo
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